On another blog, I have been having a discussion on the use of the word paradosis which is generally translated “tradition.” I posted on that word before. Go here to read that post. I thought I was done with those posts, but the other discussion has prompted me to cross post my answer below. While you do not see the discussion that has gone on before, I think you will still be able to understand my answer. I hope you find it thought-provoking.
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There is a reason the NIV and a couple of other very evangelical Bibles conveniently translate paradosis as teaching when St. Paul speaks of it in a positive fashion but tradition when it is spoken of in a negative fashion. Why is it not the “teaching of the elders” but rather the “tradition of the elders” when it is rebuked? Because it does not match “low” Protestant theology. Here is the problem. If we translate to match our theology, how can the Bible speak into our lives, either corporate or personal?
As with all things Greek, it is not sufficient to see how it was used in classical Greek. One must look both at how it was used in the Septuagint to translate Hebrew words and concepts and compare that with how the phrase also moved into Latin. Paradosis is used in Wisdom with the sense of a thing handed over, not just a teaching, for instance. And, the word is translated into the Vulgate as “traditio” or tradition. That is the surrounding usage of the word in other Judeo-Christian settings is not just teaching, though that may have been the classical usage before the time of Christ.
However, traditions do have to be taught, so any tradition is automatically a teaching, but it is more than just a verbal classroom teaching. Note that in 1 Cor 11, St. Paul speaks of the Lord’s Supper and how they celebrated it wrongly. Did he have to teach them how to celebrate the Lord’s Supper? Yes, he says he did. But, they did not do it in the way in which he taught it. The reference is not to a set of teachings per se, but to a way of worship which was not being followed. This is why I did the study on paradosis, to point out that we were taught the Lord’s tradition of worship.
Moreover, the allusions to liturgical worship in the New Testament are many, from St. John 6, all the way, and most especially including, the Book of Revelation. In fact, St. John wrote the books that contain the largest number of liturgical allusions.
But let me go farther. Beginning in the second century BC, and most especially in the Septuagint, the word leiturgia came to mean cultic worship. In the Septuagint it is used to translate the work of the priests in the sanctuary. That is, the priests were liturgizing, if I may construct such a word into English. That same use of the word is found in Acts. The passage is Acts 13:2 which in English is translated as “while they were worshipping” or something close to that. In the Greek it is “leitourgountoon” which in the light of the Septuagint might be better translated as while they were liturgizing or while they were in the midst of their ceremonies. That is, in parallel with the Septuagint, it would clearly imply or point to while they were performing the rituals of their “temple” service. In other words, in the midst of their liturgical ritual, the Lord spoke and separated out St. Paul and St. Barnabas.
One way of saying that is “while they were worshipping.” But, because we do not see the Greek word that is being translated, because we do not know that the Septuagint used the same word to translate the priestly ritual service of the Temple, because the word paradosis is translated as teaching so that we do not catch that St. Paul is urging the Corinthians to follow a taught ritual of the Lord’s Supper, we come to believe that it is never mentioned in the New Testament that the Church engaged in liturgy. The opposite is true. The Church taught traditions and engaged in liturgy, and the writings of the Fathers, and the historical practice of the very early Church confirm that interpretation of Scripture.
By the way, that same usage of leiturgia is found in Luke 1:23 where it is translated, “when the days of his priestly service were ended.” In Hebrews 9:21, the same word is used and the NIV translates it as, “In the same way, he sprinkled with the blood both the tabernacle and everything used in its ceremonies.” Hmm, so when it is used in certain settings it means “ceremonies” or “priestly service” but when it is used of the early Christian worship at Antioch it is not translated, “when they were in the midst of their ceremonies?” Does that not seem like translating to fit a theological view rather than letting Scripture speak to one?
You see, there have been some serious games played with the translations, games that can lead one to believe that certain things are not found in the New Testament, when they in fact are.
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